a = b
a2 = ab
a2 + a2 - 2ab = ab + a2 - 2ab
2(a2 - ab) = a2 - ab
2 = 1
Where is your God now ?
Yep, it holds well.
Doesn't the above/original hold too though (2 = 1) ?
All the operations seem fine.. :P
(I can give you the mistake in the logic, it's not that hard actually)
a = b = 0?
a = b
a (*a) = b (*a)
> a2 = ab
a2 + a2 - 2ab = ab + a2 - 2ab
> a(a + a - 2b) = a(b + a - 2b)
> a(2a - 2b) = a(a - b)
> 2a(a - b) = a(a - b)
> 2a = a
> a = 0
That'd make your last operation division by 0 and thus and invalid result.
Otherwise, you'll have to tell me, I haven't done crap like this since college :)
haha! :P
well, the fourth pass is : (a2 - ab)
which means divide by that term
where that term is a2 - ab = a2 - a2 = 0
and a and bare not some unrelated variables,
we know that a = b.
so it's actually zero , no matter what a and b are.
so that's not applicable
thus you end up with 2 = 1
which in turn is too bad, cause 0 = 0 looks like two cookies to me!
suddenly, cookies(!) everywhere(!!)
Pfft, I said the magic phrase divide by zero, so I call that a cookie for me.
Yeah, brisbin got it. I remember seeing this in high school. Old trick
Am I missing something?
Seems to hold?