Created
October 9, 2012 02:13
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Theorem. | |
There exist no 2 pairs of integers {a,b},{c,d} such that ab = cd(#1) ,a+b = c+d(#2), {a,b} != {c,d}, and a,b,c,d > 2 | |
Proof. | |
Suppose we have {a,b},{c,d} that satisfies all the conditions above. | |
We can suppose a,b,c,d are not all equal without losing generality, | |
since if a = b, a^2 = cd (from #1) and 2a = c+d (from #2) | |
=> 4a^2 = (c+d)^2 | |
=> 1/4(c+d)^2 = cd | |
=> (c+d)^2 = 4cd | |
=> c^2 + 2cd + d^2 = 4cd | |
=> (c-d)^2 = 0 | |
=> c = d | |
but if a=b and c=d, ab = cd implies a^2 = c^2 and thus a = c, therefore a,b,c,d are all equal. | |
Which contradicts the condition that {a,b} != {c,d} | |
furthermore, since a,b,c,d are not all equal, we can suppose a < b, c < d, and d > b without losing generality. | |
Therefore c < a < b < d. | |
From #2, we have a-c = d-b. | |
Let r = a-c = d-b, | |
=> r > 0, a = c+r, d = b+r | |
since ab = cd, (c+r)b = c(b+r) | |
=> cb+br = cb+cr => br = cr => b = c | |
Which contradicts the condition that a,b,c,d are not all equal. Q.E.D. |
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