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Last active December 13, 2023 18:54
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Smooth Invariance of Domain
Theorem (Smooth Invariance of Domain). Let f : R^n -> R^n be continuously differentiable and injective.
Then for every open set U, its image f(U) is an open set. In other words, f is an open mapping.
Proof. Let y_0 be a point in f(U) with y_0 = f(x_0) for some x_0 in U. We must show that we can fit
an open ball around y_0 that fits entirely within f(U).
Since U is open, there is some radius r > 0 such that the sphere S with center x_0 and radius r is
contained within U. Consider the function d(x) = |f(x) - y_0| defined on S. Because S is compact and
d is continuous, it attains its minimum m. As f(x_0) = y_0 and f is injective, it follows that d must
be strictly positive and hence m > 0. Then by construction we have |f(x) - f(x_0)| >= m for all x in S
so f(S) is strictly exterior to an open ball around y_0 of radius R < m.
If |y - y_0| < R then |f(x) - y| >= |f(x) - y_0| - |y - y_0| > m - R. For a given y, consider the
quadratic distance q(x) = |f(x) - y|^2 defined on the closed ball B with the sphere S as boundary. If
we choose R < m/2 then we're closer to y_0 than to f(S), so |y - y_0| < m/2 and |f(x) - y| > m/2, and
q(x_0) < (m/2)^2 at the center whereas q(x) > (m/2)^2 everywhere on the boundary. Hence h must assume
its minimum value at some point p in B's interior.
At this point, all that's left is basic calculus and linear algebra. The attainment of the minimum at the
interior point p means that 2 f'(p)^T (f(p) - y) = 0. An injective map has an injective derivative.
An injective linear map between spaces of the same dimension is surjective. Hence f'(p) is surjective.
The transpose of a linear map is injective if and only if the linear map is surjective. Hence f'(p)^T is
injective. The equation 2 f'(p)^T (f(p) - y) = 0 therefore lets us conclude f(p) = y.
This shows that every y such that |y - y_0| < R is the image of some point in B. Since B is a subset
of U, this means that the open ball centered at y_0 with radius R is contained within f(U).
@AyeAyeMaung
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AyeAyeMaung commented Dec 13, 2023

The statement is of course true. But this particular proof fails at the last step: "An injective map has an injective derivative". This is not true. f : R -> R given by f(x) = x^3 is continuously differentiable (even smooth) and injective but f'(0) = 0 i.e. the derivative is singular at 0. Modifications of this give similar problematic examples in higher dimensions.

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